Free CCAT Practice Test (50 Questions – 15 Minutes) with Instant Scoring & Full-Length Prep (2025)

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A free CCAT practice test in two formats

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7 full-length tests that match the actual CCAT in structure, difficulty, and time limits (with explanations to help you learn and improve).

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Table of Contents

What Is the CCAT Test?

The CCAT (Criteria Cognitive Aptitude Test) is a pre-employment assessment used by employers to measure how quickly and accurately you solve problems.

It includes 50 questions covering math, logic, verbal reasoning, and spatial reasoning, all under tight time limits of 15 minutes.

A high score can set you apart from other candidates and boost your chances of getting hired.

Quick Facts About the Criteria Cognitive Aptitude Test

Know what to expect before you start practicing.

Number of Questions: 50

There's no penalty for wrong answers.

Time Limit: 15 Minutes

The limited time makes accuracy and speed equally important.

Difficulty: High

Only 15% of test-takers score above 35, so preparation makes a real difference.

Average Score: 24/50

While 24 is the average, competitive roles require a significantly higher score.

Calculator: Not Allowed

You’ll need to rely on mental math and quick calculations.

Pen & Paper: Allowed

For many questions, it can be a game-changer.

Take a Free CCAT Practice Test (Self-Paced, Step-by-Step Walkthrough)

This is a slower-paced version of the 15-minute CCAT sample test featured above. It’s designed to help you better understand the different question types without the pressure of a countdown timer.

Take your time, read the explanations, and use the tips provided between questions to gain valuable insights and increase your score potential.

At the end of the test, you’ll find a CCAT score calculator where you can enter your number of correct answers and the job title you’re targeting to see whether your score meets the typical minimum requirement.

Let’s get started!

Start Strong with the First Three Questions

The CCAT begins with three straightforward math problems. These are typically quick, basic calculations designed to ease you into the test.

Aim to solve each one in 10 to 15 seconds to stay on pace and pick up easy points early.

To do well here, make sure you’re comfortable with the essentials:
addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, averages, percentages, ratios, and fractions.

A solid grasp of these basics can set the tone for a confident start.

Question #1

A part-time employee earns $18 per hour. How much will the employee earn for a 7-hour shift?

Solution:
In 1 hour, a part-time employee earns $18.
In 7 hours, a part-time employee earns $7 x 18.
In 7 hours, a part-time employee earns $126.
Hence, the correct answer is option E.

Question #2

Which of the following is the largest value?

Solution:
To determine the largest values, we need to compare the given decimals,

After making the denominator of all options the same as 10, the largest numerator is 21.3. Hence, the correct answer is option D.

Question #3

A factory produces 400 units of a product in one week. In the following week, production increases by 25%. How many units are produced in the second week?

Solution:
A factory produces 400 units of a product in one week.
In the following week, production increases by 25%:

= 500 units

Hence, the correct answer is option D.

Next are four Spatial Reasoning questions, named “Next in Series.”

Each question presents a series of three to five images that follow a logical visual pattern.

Your goal is to spot the rule that connects them and choose the correct image to complete the sequence.

You’ll encounter three common formats in these “Next in Series” questions:

  • Missing Final Figure: The last image is replaced by a question mark. Your task is to figure out which option logically completes the sequence.
  • Missing Middle Figure: A question mark appears in the middle of the sequence. You’ll need to analyze the surrounding figures and select the image that fits in that exact position.
  • No Question Mark: The series appears complete, but your task is to extend the pattern and choose the image that comes next.

These questions test your ability to recognize patterns, rotations, and transformations in visual sequences. Look carefully for shifts in shape, direction, shading, or position.

Question #4

Which of the following boxes should replace the question mark (?) to complete the pattern?

In this pattern, two filled triangles with different orientations change their positions alternately. Hence, the correct answer is option D.

Question #5

Which of the following boxes should replace the question mark (?) to complete the pattern?

Solution:
In this pattern, the given shape rotates clockwise without changing its shape, filling, or emptying. Hence, the correct answer is option B.

Question #6

Which of the following boxes should replace the question mark (?) to complete the pattern?

Solution:
In this pattern, the position alternates between a geometric shape with no straight lines and pentagons having straight lines. Hence, the correct answer is option C.

Question #7

Which of the following boxes should replace the question mark (?) to complete the pattern?

Solution:
In this pattern, the given circle rotates clockwise without changing its shape, lines, filling, or emptying. Hence, the correct answer is option A.

The following seven questions focus on Verbal Reasoning.

You’ll encounter three Word Analogy questions followed by four Sentence Completion questions, all designed to test your vocabulary, logic, and language skills.

Question #8

FROG is to TADPOLE as . . . .





The correct answer is D. BIRD is to EGG because the analogy represents a developmental life cycle.

A frog begins its life as a tadpole, just as a bird begins its life as an egg. Both illustrate the relationship between an organism and its earlier developmental stage.

The other options do not follow this pattern. For example, a tree and its roots (A) are parts of the same entity, not developmental stages. Similarly, a river and a pond (B) are distinct bodies of water, and an infant matures into an adult (C), which reverses the order. A page and a book (E) are components, not stages.

Hence, the correct answer is option D.

Question #9

COTTON is to SOFT as . . .





Solution:
The correct answer is D. FIRE is to HOT because the relationship between COTTON and SOFT highlights a material’s defining characteristic. Just as cotton is soft, fire is inherently hot. The analogy pairs a material with its primary quality.

In contrast, the other options do not fit this relationship. A. VELVET is to ROUGH is incorrect because velvet is soft, not rough. B. WOOL is to COLD is also incorrect, as wool is associated with warmth. C. LEATHER is to BRITTLE and E. FEATHER is to HEAVY both misrepresent the natural qualities of those materials.

Hence, the correct answer is option D.

A helpful way to approach Word Analogy questions is to turn the original pair into a sentence that clearly shows how the two words are related. Then, test each answer choice to see which one fits the same structure.

For example:

If the question is Pencil : Write, you might form the sentence, “You use a pencil to write.”

Now check which answer choice fits the same pattern – “You use a [X] to [Y].”

This simple technique can make even tricky word pairs easier to figure out.

Question #10

JOYFUL is to MISERABLE as . . .





Solution:
The relationship between “JOYFUL” and “MISERABLE” demonstrates a pair of opposites, where joy and misery are contrasting emotional states.

Similarly, the correct answer, “GENEROUS is to SELFISH,” also represents a relationship of opposites. Generosity involves giving and selflessness, while selfishness is characterized by prioritizing one’s own needs over others. This direct contrast mirrors the relationship in the question.

Other options, such as “HOPEFUL is to OPTIMISTIC” or “TRANQUIL is to CALM,” describe similarities rather than opposites, making “GENEROUS is to SELFISH” the most accurate choice for maintaining the opposite relationship.

Therefore, the correct answer is option C.

Question #11

Choose the word or words that, when inserted in the sentence to replace the blank or blanks, best fit the meaning of the sentence.

She was eager to begin the competition, but her _________ diminished as the challenges became more intense.





Solution:
The sentence focuses on a shift from positive anticipation to difficulty as challenges arise. “Excitement” perfectly conveys the initial positive emotion that could diminish under pressure, aligning with the meaning of the sentence.

Other options either fail to align with the shift described or represent emotions that would not fade in the given scenario, making “excitement” the most logical choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is option C.

Question #12

Choose the word or words that, when inserted in the sentence to replace the blank or blanks, best fit the meaning of the sentence.

The team leader carefully _________ the tasks among the members to ensure the project was completed on time.





Solution:
The correct answer is delegated, as it directly refers to the act of assigning or distributing tasks to others, which is the focus of the sentence. In this context, the team leader is ensuring the successful completion of the project by dividing responsibilities among team members. This aligns perfectly with the meaning of “delegated.”

The other options do not fit the context: “demonstrated” refers to showing or explaining something, that is unrelated to task distribution; “hindered” implies causing delays or obstacles, which contradicts the leader’s careful actions; “elucidated” means clarifying or explaining, which does not involve dividing tasks; and “constructed” refers to building or creating, which is unrelated to task assignment.

Therefore, “delegated”, Option A is the most accurate and appropriate choice to complete the sentence.

Your vocabulary plays a big role in how easy these Sentence Completion questions feel. If you have a strong grasp of English words, you might breeze through them more easily.

But even if vocabulary isn’t your strong suit, there are smart strategies that can help you improve both speed and accuracy.

One of the most effective techniques is to focus on keywords in the sentence that hint at the tone or intent.

These clues can guide you toward the correct answer, even when the vocabulary feels unfamiliar.

For example:
“She offered a _______ apology, clearly more concerned with appearances than genuine remorse.”

If you’re unsure about some of the choices, the keywords “more concerned with appearances than genuine remorse” suggest that the missing word should describe something insincere or superficial.

Question #13

Choose the word or words that, when inserted in the sentence to replace the blank or blanks, best fit the meaning of the sentence.

The science fair highlighted a young prodigy, who was _________ at solving complex mathematical problems in a matter of minutes.





Solution:
The word “adept” perfectly captures the high level of skill and competence expected of a prodigy, especially in the context of solving complex mathematical problems.

Other options, such as “inept” and “foolish,” contradict the idea of a prodigy, while “indifferent” and “ardent” do not directly describe skill or ability. “Adept” is the most precise and contextually appropriate word, as it highlights the prodigy’s expertise in the field.

Therefore, the correct answer is option C.

Question #14

Choose the word or words that, when inserted in the sentence to replace the blank or blanks, best fit the meaning of the sentence.

The company overcame early resistance when it decided to _________ its innovative product to the public, making it widely available for the first time.





Solution:
The sentence suggests that the company introduced its innovative product to the public, making it widely available despite early resistance. The blank requires a word that conveys revealing or making something public.

The correct answer is E. unveil, which means to introduce or present something for the first time.

Other options do not fit the context: A. restrict contradicts the idea of making it available, B. adapt focuses on modifying rather than introducing, C. conceal means to hide, which is the opposite of unveiling, and E. revise relates to altering, not introducing.

Therefore, the correct choice is E. unveil.

Next are four additional Spatial Reasoning questions, named “Odd One Out.”

Each question shows five visual figures. Four of them follow a similar pattern or share a common feature. One does not.

Your task is to identify that odd one out.

To solve these, pay attention to details like shape, orientation, symmetry, rotation, shading, or number of elements.

Strategy Tip:

Start by picking one figure and asking, “What do I notice about this one?” Then see if the same feature appears in the others.

If four share that trait and one doesn’t – it’s your odd one out.

This method helps you stay focused rather than scanning all five at once with no direction.

Question #15

Which of the following does not belong?

Solution:
In this pattern, each of the following options consists of a hexagon, a pentagon, and a square, except for option E. Hence, the correct answer is option E.

Question #16

Which of the following does not belong?

Solution:
In this pattern, all of the following are quadrilaterals with at least one acute angle except for option B which consists of four right angles. Hence, the correct answer is option B.

Question #17

Which of the following does not belong?

Solution:
The center of each of the following options is a pentagon except for option B. Hence, the correct answer is option B.

Question #18

Which of the following does not belong?

Solution:
In this pattern, the leftmost symbol in the top row is identical to the rightmost symbol in the bottom row. The only answer choice that doesn’t follow this pattern is option C. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

Mixed Challenge Ahead

The next 9 questions on the CCAT cover a mix of math, logical reasoning, and attention to detail.

This section is designed to test your ability to think clearly under pressure across different skill areas, so stay sharp and manage your time wisely.

Question #19

A zoo offers a 25% group discount on the regular admission price. If the regular price is $80 per person, how many people were in a group that spent a total of $720 on admission?

Solution:
The regular admission price is $80 per person.
Discount percentage 25%
The admission price after 25% discount is,
80 – 25% of 80.


$60

The Number of people were in a group that spent a total of $720 on admission is:

12 persons

Hence, the correct answer is option B.

Question #20

4 is 8% of what number?

Solution:
Let x be the number whose 8% is 4.


Multiplying both sides by 100, we have,


Dividing both sides by 8, we have,


Hence, the correct answer is option C.

Question #21

What would be the next group of letters in the following series?
ab … bd … cf … dh … ?

Solution:
To find the next group of letters, observe the pattern in the series:
The first letter increases alphabetically by 1 step:
a → b → c → d → e
The second letter increases alphabetically by 2 steps:
b → d → f → h → j

Thus, the next group of letters is ej.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.

Question #22

Assume the first two statements are true. Is the final statement: 1) True, 2) False, or 3) Uncertain based on the information provided?

All students in the art club attended the art exhibition.
John did not attend the art exhibition.
John is not a member of the art club.

Solution:
To evaluate the final statement, analyze the information:

All students in the art club attended the art exhibition: This means no member of the art club missed the exhibition.

John did not attend the art exhibition: Based on the first statement, anyone who did not attend the exhibition cannot be a member of the art club.

John is not a member of the art club: This statement is logically consistent with the first two statements.

Since the conclusion logically follows from the given information, the final statement is True.

Hence, the correct answer is option A.

Question #23

Assume the first two statements are true. Is the final statement: 1) True, 2) False, or 3) Uncertain based on the information provided?

Peter knows Emily.
Emily knows Jack.
Peter does not know Jack.

Solution:
To evaluate the final statement, analyze the given information:

Peter knows Emily: This establishes a direct connection between Sarah and Emily.

Emily knows Jack: This establishes a direct connection between Emily and Jack.

Peter does not know Jack: This statement is Uncertain based on the information provided, as it is not explicitly stated whether Peter knows Jack indirectly through Emily.

The statements do not confirm or deny whether Peter knows Jack. The lack of sufficient information makes the final statement Uncertain.

Hence, the correct answer is option C.

Question #24

Assume the first two statements are true. Is the final statement: 1) True, 2) False, or 3) Uncertain based on the information provided?

Jenny scored fewer points than Alice.
Jenny scored more points than Mia.
Mia scored more points than Alice.

Solution:
To evaluate the final statement, analyze the information:

Jenny scored fewer points than Alice: This means Alice > Jenny.

Jenny scored more points than Mia: This means Jenny > Mia.

Mia scored more points than Alice: This conflicts with the first two statements.

Since the third statement contradicts the first two, it cannot be true based on the information provided.

Hence, the correct answer is option B.

You’ve Reached the Middle of the Test.

At this point, the questions get trickier and take longer to solve.

This is where many test-takers start to feel the pressure.

Seeing these types for the first time under tight time limits can be overwhelming.

But you won’t be caught off guard.

That’s because you’re here, reviewing what’s ahead and learning how these questions work.

You’re already a step ahead. You’re building the calm and confidence others won’t have.

Question #25

How many of the five items in the left-hand column are exactly the same as the corresponding entry in the right-hand column?

Solution:
The items that are exactly the same are:

  1. Westfield Pharmaceuticals
  2. CrypSecure Systems

The items that are not same are:

Nelson & Grey Enterprises vs. Nelson and Grey Enterprises:
These are not the same because “&” and “and” differ.

Redwood Forest Preserve vs. Redwood National Preserve:
These are not the same because “Forest” and “National” differ.

Harborstone Financial vs. Harborstone Finance:
These are not the same because “Financial” and “Finance” differ.

Hence, the correct answer is option B.

Question #26

How many of the five items in the left-hand column are exactly the same as the corresponding entry in the right-hand column?

Solution:
The items that are exactly the same are:

  1. Horizon Lighting Co.
  2. East Valley Academy

Carter & Blake Engineering is different from Carter and Blake Engineering,
Apollo Medical Inc. is different from Apollo Medical Incorporated, and
Redwood Builders LLC is different from Redwood Builder LLC.

Hence, the correct answer is option C. 2.

Trying to memorize how many identical pairs you’ve seen can be tough, especially with the clock ticking.

Instead, use your scratch paper to make it easier:

Each time you spot a matching pair, jot down a quick line ( | ). Once you’ve gone through all the pairs, just count your lines and select the answer.

It’s fast, simple, and helps you stay focused.

Try this technique in the next question.

Question #27

How many of the five items in the left-hand column are exactly the same as the corresponding entry in the right-hand column?

Solution:
The items that are exactly the same are:

14 Gold Ave.

45 Apple Ltd. Is different from 45 Apple Limited,
23 Elmwood Dr. is different from 23 Elmwood Drive,
789 Pine Cir. is different from 789 Pine Circle, and
67 Birch Ln. is different from 67 Birch Lane.

Hence, the correct answer is option A. 1.

Final Spatial Reasoning Challenge: Matrices

These next three questions are the last Spatial Reasoning items on the test, and also the most challenging.

Matrix questions present you with a grid of symbols, where one piece is missing. Your task is to figure out the pattern and choose the symbol that completes the sequence.

The symbols themselves don’t carry meaning, but the grid always follows a logical structure – either across the rows, down the columns, or both.

Look for consistent changes in shape, position, number, rotation, or shading.

Quick Checklist – What to Look For:

  • Number of shapes
  • Shape type (circle, triangle, square, etc.)
  • Rotation or direction
  • Color or shading
  • Position or alignment

Question #28

Which of the following boxes should replace the question mark (?) to complete the pattern?

Solution:
In the given pattern, in each column, the number of completely filled geometric shapes increases from top to bottom by a specific amount, while the number of empty shapes remains constant within each column.

Therefore, the second column should contain two identical empty geometric shapes and two filled geometric shapes. Hence, the correct answer is option B.

Question #29

Which of the following boxes should replace the question mark (?) to complete the pattern?

Solution:
In the given pattern, each row shows a single empty geometric shape, two geometric shapes with one fill and one empty, and then again, a single filled large shape.

In similar way, the third row contains a single empty geometric shape, two geometric shapes with one fill and one empty, and then again, a single filled large shape.

Therefore, the third row and second column should contain one fill and one empty similar shape. Hence, the correct answer is option D.

Question #30

Which of the following boxes should replace the question mark (?) to complete the pattern?

Solution:
By observing the given pattern, we analyze that the symbols of each box rotate vertically (Column-wise) from top to bottom in the anticlockwise direction.

Therefore, to find the missing element to complete the pattern, we need to rotate the third column and the second-row symbols in an anticlockwise direction. Hence, the correct answer is option E.

Questions 31–50: The Final Stretch

The last 20 questions are a mix of math and verbal reasoning, including:

  • Arithmetic (like number series and averages)
  • Word problems (covering percentages, ratios, work, time, and distance)
  • Sentence completion
  • Antonyms
  • Word analogies
  • Graph and table interpretation

By this point, most test-takers are racing against the clock, so strategy matters more than ever.

The key is to know your strengths and weaknesses.

Decide ahead of time which question types you’ll prioritize and which ones you’re willing to guess on.

(There’s no penalty for wrong answers.)

This way, you spend your limited time where it counts and still collect points even in the final minutes.

But this approach only works if you’ve practiced under real test conditions.

That’s why we created 7 full-length CCAT practice tests, built to closely match the real exam in timing, format, and question types.

These tests help you build self-assurance, sharpen your time management, and figure out exactly where to focus on test day.

See How to Maximize Your CCAT Score >>

Question #31

What would be the next number in the following series?
256 … 128 … 64 … 32 … ?

Solution:
This is a division series where each number is divided by 2 to get the next number:

Start with 256.
Divide by 2: 256 ÷ 2 = 128
Divide by 2: 128 ÷ 2 = 64
Divide by 2: 64 ÷ 2 = 32
Divide by 2: 32 ÷ 2 = 16

Thus, the next number is 16.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.

Question #32

A driver uses an average of 2.5 gallons of fuel every hour to operate a delivery truck. If this driver works 160 hours per month, how many gallons of fuel will they need each month?

Solution:
In 1 hour, a driver uses an average of 2.5 gallons of fuel.
The driver works 160 hours per month.

In 160 hours per month, a driver uses an average of 2.5 × 160 = 400 gallons of fuel in a month.

Hence, the correct answer is option C.

Question #33

A mechanic can complete a car repair in 1 hour. His apprentice takes 3 hours to complete a car repair. If both individuals start working at the same time, and each spends 60 hours completing repairs over the course of a month, how many total car repairs will they have completed?

Solution:
A mechanic can complete a car repair in 1 hour.
Number of cars he repairs in 60 hours,
= 60 ÷ 1
= 60 cars

His apprentice takes 3 hours to complete a car repair.
Number of cars he repairs in 60 hours,
= 60 ÷ 3
= 20 cars

Total cars they have repaired,
60 + 20 = 80 cars

Hence, the correct answer is option C.

Quick Tip for Work Problems

Don’t let these stress you out – most work word problems follow a simple logic once you break them down.

  • Look at how much work one person does per hour (or per unit of time).
  • Do the same for the second person.
  • Add their work rates together to find how much they complete together.

Even if the wording feels intimidating, there’s usually just one formula behind it. Take a breath, write down what each person contributes, and you’ll often solve it faster than you think.

Question #34

Choose the word or words that, when inserted in the sentence to replace the blank or blanks, best fits the meaning of the sentence.

In response to growing environmental concerns, the company opted to _________ its manufacturing processes to align with practices that were previously considered _________ but are now seen as essential for sustainability.





Solution:
The correct answer is B. modify … impractical. The sentence describes how the company is adjusting its manufacturing processes in response to environmental concerns.

The key idea is that practices once considered impractical (difficult or unfeasible) are now viewed as essential for sustainability.

Therefore, the company is not abandoning these practices but rather modifying them to align with current standards. “Modify” suggests making changes to improve or adapt processes.

This contrasts with other options, such as A (which suggests abandoning effective practices) or D (which implies eliminating beneficial ones).

Hence, the correct answer is option B.

Question #35

Choose the word or words that, when inserted in the sentence to replace the blank or blanks, best fits the meaning of the sentence.

When entering the _________ apartment, the landlord was shocked to see the extent of the damage.





Solution:
The correct answer is dilapidated because it perfectly describes a place that is in poor, neglected, or rundown condition, which aligns with the context of the sentence.

The landlord’s shock at the damage indicates that the apartment was not in a good state, and “dilapidated” appropriately conveys this idea.

Other options, such as pristine (meaning clean or spotless) and opulent (meaning luxurious or grand), contradict the sentence’s tone and context.

Similarly, meticulous (meaning detail-oriented) and quaint (meaning charmingly old-fashioned) do not fit, as neither describes a damaged or shocking condition.

Therefore, “dilapidated” is the only word that accurately reflects the apartment’s rundown state, making it the most suitable choice.

Hence, the correct answer is option B.

Question #36

The table below displays the sales figures for a group of agents over a 2-year period. What was the approximate average sales price for the houses sold by Mr. Adams in Year 1?





Solution:
Calculate the average sales price for houses sold by Mr. Adams in Year 1:


Hence, the correct answer is option D.

Don’t Be Intimidated by Table and Graph Questions

These questions might look complex at first glance, but they usually come down to just two simple steps:

  1. Find the right row and column based on what the question asks.
  2. Do a quick, basic calculation – often addition, subtraction, multiplication, or division.

That’s it.

There are usually one or two of these on the test, and they’re a great opportunity to pick up easy points.

Don’t skip them – stay calm, stay focused, and grab those extra marks.

Question #37

A group of four numbers has an average (arithmetic mean) of 8. The first three numbers are 12, -4, and 10. What is the other number?

Solution:
Let x be the remaining numbers,

32 = 18 + x
x = 32 – 18
x = 14

Hence, the correct answer is option C.

Question #38

An investor purchases shares in a company for $10/share. The shares depreciate 20% in the first year and 30% the next. What is the price of the stock after two years?





Solution:
To calculate the value of the share after two years,
The shares depreciate 20% in the first year,
The value after the first year:


The shares depreciate 30% in the second year,
The value after the second year:


Hence, the correct answer is option E.

Question #39

A bakery buys 1200 bagels per week, at $4.00 per dozen. If the cost per dozen bagels rises to $4.50, how much more will the bakery have to pay for bagels per week?

Solution:
The number of dozens purchased per week,
Number of dozens = 1200 ÷ 12 = 100 dozens

The weekly cost at the original price at $4.00 per dozen:
Original cost per week = 100 ✕ 4 = $400

The weekly cost at the new price at $4.50 per dozen:
New cost per week =100 ✕ 4.50=$450

The increase in weekly cost:
Increase in cost = New cost per week – Original cost per week
= $450 – $400
= $50

Hence, the correct answer is option D.

Question #40

Choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE to the word in capital letters.

OBSCURED





The correct answer is clarified because it directly opposes the meaning of obscured.

The word “obscured” refers to something that is hidden, unclear, or difficult to understand. In contrast, “clarified” means to make something clear, understandable, or free from confusion. These two words are direct opposites in terms of their meanings.

Other options, such as “hidden,” “distorted,” and “opaque,” align more closely with the meaning of “obscured,” making them incorrect choices.

Similarly, “misunderstood” refers to misinterpretation, which is not related to the concept of clarity. Therefore, “clarified” is the most appropriate antonym and the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is option A.

Antonyms: No Context, Just Vocabulary

Like sentence completion questions, antonym questions rely heavily on your vocabulary skills.

But there’s a key difference – you don’t get any context to guide you. You’re given a single word, and you need to choose the one that means the opposite.

If you haven’t had time to expand your vocabulary before the test, don’t worry. Elimination strategies can still give you an edge.

One of the best techniques is to spot the synonyms. In many questions, two or more answer choices will have similar meanings to the given word (and to each other).

Since they can’t be the opposite, you can eliminate them and focus on what’s left.

Example:

BELLIGERENT

A) Aggressive
B) Hostile
C) Peaceful
D) Combative
E) Flexible

Let’s analyze:

Aggressive, hostile, and combative all share the same confrontational tone as belligerent – they’re synonyms.

Peaceful is the only clear opposite, making it the correct answer.

Flexible doesn’t quite fit the context. It’s not related in meaning to belligerent and can be eliminated as irrelevant.

Question #41

Choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE to the word in capital letters.

AVID





“Avid” means very enthusiastic or zealous.

Enthusiastic and zealous are synonyms of “avid,” so they’re wrong.

Curious and wary aren’t antonyms of “avid.”

Indifferent means lacking interest or enthusiasm, making it the correct opposite.

Question #42

FORTIFY is to WEAKEN as . . .





Solution:
The relationship between FORTIFY and WEAKEN is one of opposites. To fortify means to strengthen, while to weaken means to reduce strength.

Similarly, the relationship between EMBRACE and REJECT is one of opposites. To embrace is to accept or welcome, while to reject is to refuse or dismiss.

The other options do not reflect a similar relationship:

B. EXPAND is to EXTEND represents a similarity rather than an opposition.
C. ENDORSE is to SUPPORT also shows similarity, not opposition.
D. IGNITE is to SPARK describes related actions, not opposites.
E. ELEVATE is to LIFT reflects similarity, not contrast.

Thus, the pair EMBRACE and REJECT best matches the relationship of opposites presented in the question.

Hence, the correct answer is option A.

Question #43

EXPAND is to CONTRACT as . . .





Solution:
The correct answer is B. STRETCH is to COMPRESS. This analogy is based on opposites. The word “EXPAND” means to make larger or increase in size, while “CONTRACT” means to make smaller or decrease in size.

Similarly, “STRETCH” means to extend or lengthen, and “COMPRESS” means to press together or shorten, which are opposite actions.

The other answer choices involve synonyms or related concepts, such as BUILD and CREATE or EXTEND and ELONGATE, which do not reflect the opposite relationship present in the original analogy.

Therefore, the pairing of STRETCH and COMPRESS best matches the logic of opposites.

Hence, the correct answer is option B.

Question #44

Choose the word or words that, when inserted in the sentence to replace the blank or blanks, best fit the meaning of the sentence.

Despite his _________ attitude and _________ remarks toward his coworkers during the team meeting, the manager decided to give him another chance.





Solution:
The correct answer is B. arrogant … condescension because the sentence describes a negative attitude and remarks directed toward coworkers, which aligns with “arrogant” (overbearing or self-important) and “condescension” (patronizing or dismissive remarks).

A. magnanimous … generosity is incorrect because it describes positive qualities that do not fit the context of bad behavior.

C. timid … enthusiasm is contradictory as “timid” implies shyness, which does not align with someone making notable remarks during a meeting.

D. amiable … humor suggests friendliness and lightheartedness, which are inconsistent with the implied negative tone.

Finally, E. reserved … indifference describes disengagement or aloofness, which does not convey active negative behavior toward coworkers.

Therefore, option B is the most appropriate choice for this context.

One Last Push: Questions 45–50

The last six questions on the CCAT are primarily math-based, with most presented as word problems. The very last question (number 50) is typically either a graph/table question or a logic-based puzzle.

By this point, most test-takers have less than a minute to work with, so every second counts.

That’s why it’s important to choose your battles wisely:

Focus on the questions you’re confident you can solve correctly. For the others, make a quick, educated guess and move on. This strategy helps you maximize your score, even under pressure.

Question #45

A waiter’s monthly pay consists of a $3,000 base salary plus 15% in tips on the total food sales. If the waiter’s total pay for the month was $5,250, how much money did he generate in food sales during this time?





Solution:
A waiter’s monthly pay consists of a $3,000 base salary.
If he earns $5,250 in a month,
The amount he earned from the commission on tips:
$5,250 – $3000 = $2,250

The amount he generated in sales during this month,


Hence, the correct answer is option D.

Question #46

In a swimming competition, there are 30 swimmers from Team Alpha and 20 swimmers from Team Beta. 10 swimmers from Team Alpha and 8 swimmers from Team Beta fail to complete their races.

What percentage of the swimmers who finish the race are from Team Alpha?

Solution:
Let’s find the number of swimmers who finish the swimming competition:

Team Alpha starts with 30 swimmers, and 10 do not finish the swimming competition,
30 – 10 = 20 (Team Alpha finishers).

Team Beta starts with 20 swimmers, and 8 do not finish the swimming competition,
20 – 8 = 12 (Team Beta finishers).

Total finishers: 20 + 12 = 32.

The percentage of finishers from Team Alpha,


Hence, the correct answer is option B.

Question #47

What is the average (arithmetic mean) of the following numbers:
5, 6, 9, 21, and 30?

Interactive Question

Solution:
Arithmetic mean


Hence, the correct answer is option C.

Question #48

A coffee shop offers coffee in five different types of beans, each with four different levels of roast, and two different serving sizes.

How many different combinations of type, roast, and size are possible?

Interactive Question

Solution:
To calculate the total number of combinations, multiply the number of options for each category:
Number of types of beans = 5
Number of roast levels = 4
Number of serving sizes = 2

Total combinations,
= Number of types ✕ Number of roasts ✕ Number of serving sizes
= 5 ✕ 4 ✕ 2
= 40

Hence, the correct answer is option B.

Question #49

In an upcoming school election, 70% of students in Grade 10 will vote for Candidate X, while the rest will vote for Candidate Y. Only 30% of students in Grade 11 will vote for Candidate X, while the rest will vote for Candidate Y.

What is the lowest percentage of total voters (combined from both grades) that must be from Grade 10 in order for Candidate X to win the election?

Interactive Question

Solution:
Let, x represents the voters from grade 10.

Then,
1-x represents the voters from grade 11.
To win, the X candidate combined vote percentage must be more than 50%.

70% of the voters from grade 10 + 30% of the voters from grade 11 > 50%


This means at least 50% of the voters must be grade 10 for Candidate X to win. Therefore, the lowest percentage of total voters (combined from both grades) that must be from Grade 10 in order for Candidate X to win the election is 50%.

Hence, the correct answer is option C.

Question #50

The chart below shows the yearly revenue of the factories. Which of the following factories experienced the greatest increase in revenue from one year to the next?

Interactive Question

Year 2001 versus year 2002

Factory 1
Decrease in revenue = 84,000 – 72,000 = $12,000

Factory 2
Decrease in revenue = 77,000 – 74,000 = $3,000

Factory 3
Neither decrease or increase in revenue = 82,000 – 82,000 = $0

Year 2002 versus year 2003

Factory 1
Increase in revenue = 8,0000 – 72,000 = $8,000

Factory 2
Increase in revenue = 78,000 – 74,000 = $4,000

Factory 3
Decrease in revenue = 82,000 – 72,000 = $10,000

Here, the greatest increase in the revenue of factory 1 ($8,000) is between 2002 and 2003.

Hence, the correct answer is option A.

Well Done – You’ve Finished the CCAT Practice Test!

Now it’s time to see how you did.
Enter the number of questions you answered correctly, along with the position you’re applying for, to check whether your score meets the minimum requirement for that role.

CCAT Scores Calculator for the Free Sample Test







⚠️ Please note: The score ranges shown above are estimates. In practice, the level of competition for each role can significantly raise the bar, so aiming higher than the minimum is always a smart strategy.

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